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Section 1: Vocabulary and Grammar (25 points)
This section consists of 3 parts. Read the directions for each part before answering the questions. The time for this section is 25 minutes.

Part 1 Vocabulary Selection
In this part, there are 20 incomplete sentences. Below each sentence, there are 4 choices respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. There is only ONE right answer. Blacken the corresponding letter as requires on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET.

1. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ____ it is clear that he was a great artist.
A. in the aftermath  B. by the time  C. in retrospect  D. in this eventuality
2. Being both spoiled and lazy, he ____ everyone else for his lack of success.
  A. accused        B. charged     C. criticized     D. blamed
3. Your usual teacher has lost his voice and ____ I am taking his place today.
  A. nevertheless     B. however    C. moreover     D. accordingly
4. As always when she sang in the bathroom, she ____ the high notes in a special
A. span out        B. belted out   C. spread out     D. stretch out
5. The prisoner ____ that he had assaulted a policeman.
  A. denied          B. rejected     C. contradicted   D. refused
6. Only hotel guests have the ____ of using the private beach.
  A. occasion         B. possibility   C. privilege     D. allowance
7. The jury gave a ____ of ¡°not guilty¡±.
  A. sentence         B. judgement   C. charge       D. verdict
8. Wearing seat-belts when driving is now ____ by law.
  A. compulsive       B. forcible     C. compulsory   D. involuntary
9. I¡¯ll just ____ an eye over these figures before you type them.
  A. toss             B. cast        C. fling         D. throw
10. He was facing charges on forgery in a court of law but he hired a good attorney to ____.
  A. get off           B. get through  C. get by        D. get away
11. The campers ____ their tent in a sheltered valley.
  A. established       B. installed     C. pitched       D. fixed
12. A larger brain makes man ____ to animals.
  A. better           B. superior      C. excelled      D. outstanding
13. He was always finding ____ with his daughter¡¯s friends.
  A. blame          B. error         C. mistake       D. fault
14. It was too late to ____ of the contract.
  A. back out        B. back down     C. back up       D. back away
15. She had just ____ the shell of the hard-boiled egg and was starting to peel it off.
  A. snapped        B. cracked       C. fractured       D. burst
16. Children who are praised for their work are always ____ on.
  A. encouraged     B. approved      C. inspired         D. spurred
17. It is impossible for parents to ____ their children from every danger.
  A. protect         B. relieve        C. preserve         D. conserve
18. Even though the main source of ____ exposure for a majority of the human population is the sun, the artificial tanning from sun beds contributes significantly to the total UV risk.
  A. extra violent    B. extra violet     C. ultraviolet        D. ultravirus
19. This is ____ work. It calls for a good eye and a steady hand.
  A. precise         B. precision      C. exact            D. exactness
20. I wouldn¡¯t trust such a ____ person.
  A. deceitful        B. deceptive      C. decisive          D. deceive

Part 2 Vocabulary Replacement
This part consists of 15 sentence in which one word or phrase is underlined. Below each sentence, there are 4 choices respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. Choose the word or phrase that can replace the underlined part without causing any grammatical error or changing the basic meaning of the sentence. There is only ONE right answer. Blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET.

21. As a conductor, Leonard Bernstein is famous for his intensely vigorous and exuberant style.
   A. extreme      B. enthusiastic       C. prosperous       D. nervous
22. On a Windows screen, there will roll down many more buttons when you hit the ¡°Tools¡± button.
   A. cast         B. caste             C. cascade          D. cataract
23. In Nathaniel Hawthorne¡¯s The Scarlet Letter, Reverend Dimmesdale succumbed to Hester¡¯s charms.
   A. appealed to  B. conversed about   C. cared nothing for  D. yielded to
24. So engrossed in his efforts would Gaugin become that he barely noticed the passing of time.
   A. delighted in   B. frustrated by    C. expanded by     D. involved in
25. One out of five bridges in the United States is outmoded.
   A. narrow      B. obsolete         C. illegal          D. concrete
26. Several theories of evolution had historically preceded that of Charles Darwin, although he expounded upon the stages of development.
   A. found fault with                       B. explained in detail
   C. outlined briefly                       D. offered in published form
27. When Akiyama Toyohiro, Japan¡¯s first astronaut, completed his stint in space, he came back down to earth with more than one worry.
   A. spell          B. sling           C. sting           D. stink
28. Since she did not have time to read the entire play before class, she read an outline of the plot instead.
   A. a synonym    B. a symmetry    C. a synopsis      D. a symposium
29. Tiny Tim, a character in A Christmas Carol, was a happy little boy in spite of the disability that caused him a weakness in one leg.
   A. to limp         B. to fall          C. rest            D. suffer
30. When a hurricane is about to occur, the National Weather Bureau issues a warning.
   A. adjacent        B. gigantic        C. perilous        D. imminent
31. Rain abates in the fall throughout most of the Appalachian Mountain region.
   A. pours          B. accumulates     C. lessens        D. evaporates
32. The thief was apprehended, but his accomplice had disappeared.
   A. people who saw him               B. the person who helped him
   C. guns and knives                   D. stolen goods
33. Relaxation therapy teaches one not to fret over small problems.
   A. worry about                      B. get involved in
   C. get angry about                    C. look for
34. Benjamin Franklin was remembered for his good judgement.
   A. vigilance        B. guilty         C. sagacity        D. resolution
35. Mark Anthony¡¯s eulogy of Caesar at his funeral is memorably recorded in a play by Shakespeare.
   A. prayer         B. praise        C. biography      D. denunciation

Part 3 Error Correction
This part consists of 15 sentences in which there is an underlined part that indicates an error. Below each sentence, there are 4 choices respectively marked by letters A, B, C and D. Choose the word or phrase that can replace the underlined part so that the error is corrected.

36. He had studied hard, he would have been able to pass the exam.
   A. He had studied harder                B. If only he studied more
   C. Had he studied harder                C. When he studied more
37. It was now clear that no such weapons were manufactured and none been found.
A. was found  B. were founded  C. has been found  D. have been founded
38. Whenever we hear of a natural disaster, we feel sympathetic to the people to be affected.
   A. to have affected                      B. to have effected
   C. who have been effected                D. who have been affected
39. Our programs come second to theirs.
   A. come second after                     B. are second only to
   C. are first except for                     D. are first place from
40. Our holiday is doomed to failure without you.
   A. would doom                         B. would have been doomed
   C. had been doomed                     D. has had to be doomed
41. I¡¯m rather concerned how he will take in his school.
   A. take on         B. take up         C. take off        D. take to
42. You¡¯ve been so helpful! How can I make up to you?
   A. make it up to you                      B. make you up
   C. make up it for you                      D. make up you
43. I don¡¯t doubt how the plan will be will received.
   A. that            B. which           C. if             D. whether
44. Trial and error are the source of our knowledge.
   A. is             B. were          C. has            D. have been
45. Some people think more of animals than will of children.
   A. they have       B. they had         C. they are       D. they do
46. The belief is the legendary lost continent of Atlantis may someday be found.
   A. It is believed that                       B. It is believing that
   C. The belief that                         D. That belief is
47. Because excessively hunting has depleted many wildlife species, game preserves are being established.
   A. excessive hunting                       B. hunting excessively
   C. The belief that                         D. they hunted excessively
48. Few pleasures can equal such of a cool drink on a hot day.
   A. this            B. all this         C. that             D. all that
49. American Indian languages, which differ widely, tended to group many units of meaning into multisyllabic words.
   A. all tend         B. and tend         C. to tend         D. tending
50. We are not conscious of the extent of which work provides the psychological satisfaction that can make the difference between a full and empty life.
   A. to which       B. in which        C. at which        D. by which

Section 2: Reading Comprehension (50 points)
In this section you will find after each of the passage a number of questions or unfinished statements about the passage, each with 4 (A, B, C and D) choices to complete the statement. You must choose the one which you think fits best. Blacken the corresponding letter as required on your Machine-scoring ANSWER SHEET. The time for this section is 70 minutes.

Questions 51 ¡ª 55 are based on the following passage.
        Congress makes the laws in the United States. It has two parts, which are more or less equal in power. They are known as the House of Representatives and the Senate. The House of Representatives is larger than the Senate whose 100 members (two from each state) serve for six years. The 435 members of the House are elected every two years, and the number from each state is determined by the population of the state. For example, California, which has a large population, has 43 representatives, while the State of Nevada has only one.
        The House and Senate are divided into small groups which take care of special matters such as education or foreign affairs. The most important work of Congress is often done in these groups, which are called subcommittees.
        According to the Constitution of the United States, a senator must be at least 30 years old and he must have been a citizen of the United States for nine years at the time of his election. To be elected to the House a person must be 25 years old and must have been a United States citizen for seven years. At the present time, members of Congress include businessmen, farmers, teachers, and especially lawyers. In general, senators are better known than representatives because they are fewer in number and serve for a longer time. Many American presidents served in Congress before they because president.
   
51. In the U.S. Congress, the House of Representatives and the Senate are ____.
A. not equal. The House is more powerful
B. almost equal in power
C. not equal. The Senate is far more powerful
D. different. The House is more important
52. The members of the Senate are elected for ____ years.
   A. two            B. three           C. four           D. six
53. The number of the members in the House from each state ____.
A. is fixed, two from each state
B. depends on how many people the state has
C. depends on the size of the state
D. depends on the location of the state
54. To be elected to the Senate a person must ____.
A. be at least 25 years old
B. be at least 30 years old
C. have been a citizen for seven years
D. be a lawyer
55. Which of the following is true?
A. A representative serves for two years.
B. To become a senator is easier than to become a representative.
C. A senator performs his duties for a shorter time than a representative
D. All presidents were representatives and then senators before becoming president of the United States.

Questions 56 ¡ª 60 are based on the following passage.
Air France SA said Monday that its second-quarter net profit fell 35 percent to €57 million ($57.4 million), but sales were steady and operating profit surged.
Earning before interest and tax, a measure of operating income, gained 86 percent to €141 million as fuel costs fell costs fell and cargo traffic rose.

56. ¡°€¡±in ¡°€57 million¡± and ¡°€141 million¡± probably stands for ____.
   A. English    B. the euro  C. European    D. European Currency Unit
57. Which of the following is not a cause for Air France¡¯s earnings to rise before interest and tax?
A. The drop in fuel cost.
B. The rise in cargo traffic.
C. The rise in passenger traffic.
D. Its partnership with Alitalia SpA.
58. Which of the following is not a trouble confronting Air France?
A. Deferred taxes being due.
B. The shrinking French market.
C. A four-day strike by pilots in September.
D. The war on Iraq.
59. Why did Air France¡¯s net income fall despite rising sales?
A. Because it had to pay deferred taxes that came due.
B. Because the French market was shrinking.
C. Because of a four-day strike by pilots in September.
D. Because the Iraqi war had reduced Atlantic flights.
60. ¡°The carrier lost about €80 million in revenue because of a four-day strike by pilots in September¡±. What does ¡°the carrier¡± refer to here?
   A. British Airways PLC.                B. Lufthansa AG.
   C. Air France SA.                     D. Alitalia SpA.

Questions 61 ¡ª 65 are based on the following passage.
A. total of 4.6 million digital televisions have been sold, and the sales
of HDTV sets have quadrupled since last year. Consumers have bought HDTVs to play their DVDs and to have clearer pictures and wide screens. Only a small percentage of the people who have purchased HDTVs, however, have actually hooked their TVs up to receive high-definition television digital signals. Perhaps television viewers are having trouble keeping up with the changes in technology. Even the manufacturers of HDTVs, like Mitsubishi, Thomson Multimedia, Sony, and Samsung seem to have a tough time learning how to make their sets work with the various digital TV formats because little standardization has been required or implemented in the industry.
    Some of the HDTVs weight over 200lbs., and a variety of retailers offer a delivery service to the buyer¡¯s home to help install the heavy sets. This is known as a white-glove service and usually comes with an extra fee. After HDTV purchasers get their sets home and hook them up, they will still need to work to get the digital signals to their systems. Most of the industry¡¯s cable providers do not yet offer high-definition programming, and only about 15% of commercial television stations have switched over to even the lowest improved digital pictures. Worse yet, viewers may need to install antenna before they can even get the digital signals to their new HDTV sets. Another frustration for home-theater seekers is that the current HDTV sets allow owners only to watch high-definition programs, not to record them.

61. According to the first sentence, the sales of HDTV sets since last year, by the time when this article was written, had reached ______.
  A. 4.6 million    B. 9.2 million  C. 18.4 million  D. I do not know many
62. ¡°Hook up¡± as in ¡°hooked their TVs up¡± underlined in Paragraph 1 most probably means to ____.
   A. have a hood over the TV              B. be connected to
   C. relate oneself to                     D. keep contact with
63. A majority of HDTV consumers could not enjoy high-quality digital pictures because ____.
A. they did not tune in to the right channel
B. they did not install the system
C. the market retailers created the confusion on purpose
D. the manufacturers did not have a uniform standard for their sets
64. According to the passage, which of the following offers most of the HDTV programmes so far?
A. Retailer delivery services.
B. Cable providers.
C. Commercial television stations
D. HDTV set manufacturers.
65. On the whole, this passage is positioned to dwell on ____.
A. the overall picture of the HDTV sector
B. how the giant TV market should offer better products
C. a lament over consumer¡¯s inability to use a high-end TV set
D. a criticism of the TV markets for doing nothing about a big problem

Question 66 ¡ª 70 are based on the following passage.
The idea of test-tube babies may make you either delighted at the wonders of modern medicine or irritated while considering the moral, or technological implications of starting life in a laboratory. But if you¡¯ve ever been pregnant yourself, one thing is certain: You wonder what it¡¯s like to carry a test-tube baby. Are these pregnancies normal? Are the babies normal?
The earliest answer come from Australia, where a group of medical experts at the Queen Victoria Medical Center in Melbourne have taken a look at the continent¡¯s first nine successful invitro pregnancies. The Australians report that the pregnancies themselves seemed to have proceeded according to plan, but at birth some unusual trends did show up. Seven of the nine babies turned out to be girls. Six of the nine were delivered by Caesarean section. And one baby, a twin, was born with a serious heart defect and a few days later developed life-threatening problems.
What does it all mean? Even the doctors don¡¯t know for sure, because the numbers are so small. The proportion of girls to boys is high, but until there are many more test-tube babies no one will know whether that¡¯s something that just happened to be like that or something special that happens when egg meets sperm in a test tube instead of a fallopian tube. The same thing is true of the single heart defect. It usually shows up in only 15 out of 60,000 births in that part of Australia, but the fact that it occurred in one out of nine test-tube babies does not necessarily mean that they are at special risk. One thing the doctors can explain is the high number of Caesareans. Most of the mothers were older, had long histories of fertility problems and in some cases had had surgery on the fallopian tubes, all of which made them likely candidates for Caesareans anyway.
The Australian researchers report that they are quite encouraged. All the babies are now making normal progress, even the twin with the birth defects.

66. What concern will the test-tube baby raise according to the passage?
A. Whether the pregnancies of test-tube babies would be normal.
B. Whether the test-tube babies would be encouraged.
C. Why the proportion of defected babies is so high.
D. Why the number of Caesareans is so high.
67. What does the word ¡°invitro¡± underlined in Paragraph 2 most probably mean?
   A. Normal.        B. Test-tube.       C. Built-in.        D. Formal
68. Which of the following statements about the experiment mentioned in the passage is true?
A. Only the twins are defected.
B. Most of the babies are delivered by means of Caesarean.
C. There are some troubles during all mothers¡¯ pregnancies.
D. One baby appears to be abnormal.
69. Which of the following explanations regarding the high number of Caesarean operations is NOT true?
A. Some mothers have passed the best age for a natural delivery.
B. Some mothers have fertility problems.
C. Some mothers favor the operations of this type.
D. Some mothers have had surgical operations on their fallopian tubes.
70. What is the author¡¯s tone in this passage?
   A. Depressed.     B. Optimistic      C. Opposing.     D. Negative

Questions 71 ¡ª 80 are based on the following passage.
The ocean bottom ¡ª a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth ¡ª is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth¡¯s surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation¡¯s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP¡¯s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean¡¯s surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger¡¯s core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger¡¯s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that sharp the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world¡¯s past climates. Deep ¨Cocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change ¡ª information that may be used to predict future climates.

71. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a ¡°frontier¡± in Paragraph 1 because it ____.
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
72. The word ¡°inaccessible¡± underlined in Paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
   A. unrecognizable    B. unreachable    C. unusable     D. unsafe
73. The author mentions ¡°outer space¡± underlined in Paragraph 1 because ____.
A. the Earth¡¯s climate million of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration
74. Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine.
B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages.
D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
75. The word ¡°extracting¡± underlined in Paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
   A. breaking      B. locating     C. removing     D. analyzing
76. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was ____.
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
77. The word ¡°strength¡± underlined in Paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
   A. basis         B. purpose      C. discovery     D. endurance
78. The word ¡°they¡± underlined in Paragraph 4 refers to ____.
   A. years         B. climates      C. sediments    D. cores
79. Deep-ocean sediments provide better information about the world¡¯s past climate because they ____.
   A. are well protected                     B. have land-based evidence
   C. are in isolation                        D. have a longer history
80. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth¡¯s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories because more widely accepted.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth¡¯s past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

Questions 81 ¡ª 90 are based on the following passage.
At the beginning of the twentieth century, North American society held, as an ideal, the Nuclear Family. This presumably perfect residential, social, and economic unit consisted of an adult male, an adult female and their minor children. This structure was thought to be stable and long lasting.

81. In the 1910s most North Americans believed that the Nuclear Family ____.
A. wouldn¡¯t last long
B. was the normal family structure
C. had no social and economic basis
D. was unworthy
82. What happened to the Nuclear Family in the middle of the twentieth century?
A. It changed greatly.
B. It was criticized.
C. It remained a normal structure.
D. It was lost.
83. In the middle of the twentieth century, people in North America ____.
A. were tired of the Nuclear Family
B. wanted to give up the Nuclear Family
C. believed that the Nuclear Family was hopeful
D. were indifferent to the Nuclear Family
84. What has changed the Nuclear Family in North America?
A. People have changed their ideas about marriage.
B. Women become more independent.
C. The economy is changing.
D. All of the above factors are acting together.
85. What is the major factor that has raised the divorce rate in North America?
A. The increasing equality of women.
B. Relaxation of the divorce laws.
C. The significant reduction of the shame on divorce.
D. Men having more chances to know women.
86. In Paragraph 4, ¡°until death do us part¡± probably means remaining married ____.
A. until death
B. to the particular person until death
C. to one person at a time
D. until one leaves
87. In Paragraph 5, ¡°two-tier system¡± means some ____.
A. men have many wives while others have none
B. people are very rich while others are very poor
C. people have too much work to do while others have nothing to do
D. people control others
88. Many wives work outside their home because they ____.
A. want to be independent
B. don¡¯t want to stay at home
C. don¡¯t have to take care of their children
D. want to make money for their home
89. ¡° ¡®Stranger-oriented¡¯ socialization system ¡± in Paragraph 5 probably means ____.
A. strangers come home to take care of children
B. neighbors don¡¯t know each other
C. mothers work outside their home and become strange to their children
D. children become strange to their parents
90. The author¡¯s purpose is to ____.
A. give the facts of marriage in North America
B. explain the reason why the divorce rate is high in North America
C. introduce why both husband and wife have to work outside their home
D. give a picture of family structural change in North America

Questions 91 ¡ª 100 are based on the following passage.
Seeking to build support among black families for its education reform law, the Bush administration paid a prominent black pundit $240,000 to promote the law on his nationally syndicated television show and to urge other black journalists to do the same.
The campaign, part of an effort to promote No Child Left Behind (NCLB), required commentator Armstrong Williams ¡°to regularly comment on NCLB during the course of his broadcasts,¡± and to interview Education Secretary Rod Paige for TV and radio spots that were aired during the show in 2004.
Williams said Thursday he understands that critics could find the arrangement unethical, but ¡°I wanted to do it because it¡¯s something I believe in.¡± The top Democrat on the House Education Committee, Rep. George Miller of California, called the contract ¡°a very questionable use of taxpayer¡¯money¡± that is ¡°probably illegal¡±.
The contract, detailed in documents obtained by USA TODAY through a Freedom of Information Act request, also shows that the Education Department, through the Ketchum public relations firm, arranged with Williams to use contacts with America¡¯s Black Forum, a group of black broadcast journalists, ¡°to encourage the producers to periodically address¡± NCLB. He persuaded radio and TV personality Steve Harvey to invite Paige onto his show twice. Harvey¡¯s manager, Rushion McDonald, confirmed the appearances.

91. We know from this passage that Mr. Armstrong Williams was, at the time when the story went public, all the following EXCEPT ____.
A. column writer                            B. business owner
C. TV commentator                          D. government official
92. From the context, the word ¡°pundit¡± underlined in Paragraph 1 is probably similar to all the following terms EXCEPT ____.
   A. bandit       B. journalist      C. anchorman      D. commentator
93. A ¡°nationally syndicated television show¡± underlined in Paragraph 1 is most possibly a TV show that ____.
A. can be organized like a national game
B. can be aired in many towns in the USA
C. might be somehow eradicated someday
D. must be shown everywhere across the country
94. As mentioned in the passage, Rod Paige was certainly ____.
A. a secretary in charge of education in the NCLB program
B. a secretary in charge of TV Education for American children
C. one of the many men interviewed on radio in2004
D. the man in charge of the Education Ministry of the United States
95. Obviously, the word ¡°arrangement¡± underlined in the third paragraph refers to the fact that ____.
A. he was arranged to speak about his involvement
B. a campaign was under way to promote the administration
C. he was paid for speaking on NCLB developments
D. some critics made an arrangement to criticize him
96. ¡°The top Democrat on the House Education Committee, Rep. George Miller of California¡±
A. from the State of California, a representative of his state at the House of Representatives, and a Republican Party member, and he sits on the Education Committee of the House of Representatives
B. a Republican representative from the State of California, a representative of the House of Representatives of the USA to the State of California, and the top Democrat on the Education Committee of the House of Representatives
C. a representative of the State of California to the House of Representatives of the United States of America, a member of the Democratic Party, and a member on the Education Committee of the House of Representatives
D. a top Democrat representing George Miller from the State of California, a Republican Party member at the House of Representatives, and a member of the Education Committee of the House of Representatives of the United States of America
97. According to the passage, ¡°No Child Left Behind (NCLB)¡± was most possibly a new ____.
   A. law recently passed                     B. campaign at large
   C. Bush government plan                   D. broadcast program
98. The ¡°contract¡± appearing in Paragraph 4 is quite likely referring to ____.
A. an arrangement between USA TODAY and the ¡°Freedom of Information Act¡±
B. a commercial agreement between the Bush administration and Mr. Armstrong Williams
C. an arrangement between the Education Department and the Ketchum public relations company
D. a volunteer agreement between Mr. Armstrong Williams and the No Child left Behind effort
  100. The ¡°appearances¡± at the end of the passage refer to ____.
A. a group of black broadcast journalists
B. producers periodically address NCLB
C. Rod Paige had interviews in a TV show
D. Rushion McDonald saw Steve Harvey

Section 3: Cloze Test (25 points)
In the following passage, there are 25 blanks representing words that are missing from the context. You are to put back in each of the blanks the missing word. Write your answers on the ANSWER SHEET. The time for this section is 25 minutes.

Of all the employed workers in the United States, 12.5 million are part of a temporary workforce. The United States Bureau of Labor Statistics counts 9.2 percent of workers as those who have ____ (1) they term ¡°alternative employment arrangements.¡± The government predicts that temporary staffing agencies ____ (2) experience growth of 49 percent by 2010. If number increase at the rate ____ (3), these companies will add 1.9 million new jobs by 2010.  That¡¯s more than any ____ (4) industry.
Temporary workers were the first ones to be affected by the recent economic recession, but they are ____ (5) to be the first to regain positions as the economy picks up and companies work to rebuild. Employers use temporary workers as a resource because ____ (6) offer flexibility and come at a low cost. Many temporaries as ¡°independent contractors¡± instead of employees, ____ (7) allows the employer to avoid ____ (8) certain taxes. Because they are not required to offer benefits to temporary workers, companies can save a great deal of money by hiring temps. Usually, temporary workers can qualify ____ (9) benefits if they work for a staffing company for a certain length of time. Most temps, however, do not continue with one company long ____ (11) position later.
According to Richard Wahlquist, president of the American Staffing Association, 75 ____ (12) of temporary workers hope for transition out of the temporary staffing category ____ (13) a period of time. Wahlquist finds that temporary workers spend about 11 weeks on various assignments before their ____ (14) out of the temporary workforce. Many use temporary positions to gain experience and skills ____ (15) they move on to better jobs. Wahquist says that the temp workforce as a whole turns ____ (16) 400 percent each year.
Tom Dilworth, research director at the Employment Policies Institute, explains ____ (17) some workers like having temporary jobs ____ (18) it affords them a great deal of elasticity with time and everything. Some temps only have a limited ____ (19) of time to work and temp agencies can help coordinate jobs to fit their schedules. Other sometimes-employees use temporary jobs to get an ____ (20) to a company from the inside, to get a foot in the door of a certain business or career. ____ (21) others take temporary positions in hopes their employers will change them over to permanent positions eventually.
Nearly all the industries in the United States use temporary workers. ____ (22) to Tim  Costello, coordinator of the North American Alliance for Fair Employment, the growth of temporary labor threatens ____ (23) job security of permanent workers who fear replacement, as well as the temps who are more accustomed to turnover. He predicts that there will continue to ____ (24) a gradual shift from permanent employees to contingent staffing, and that such a ____ (25) in workplace demographics will ¡°lead to lower wages, poorer working conditions, and more instability.¡±

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Section 1 ¹²¼Æ25·Ö
Part 1 ¹²20Ì⣬ÿÌâ0.5·Ö£¬Âú·ÖΪ10·Ö
   1. C  2. D   3. D   4. A   5. A   6. C   7. D   8. C  9. B   10. A
   11. C  12. B  13. D  14. A  15. B  16. D  17. A  18. C  19. B  20.A

Section 2 ¹²50Ì⣬ÿÌâ1·Ö£¬Âú·ÖΪ50·Ö
   51. B  52. D  53. B  54. B  55. A  56. B  57. D  58. A  59. A  60. C
   61. D  62. B  63. B  64. C  65. A  66. A  67. B  68. B  69. C  70. B
  71. D  72. B  73. B  74. D  75. C  76. B  77. A  78. C  79. A  80. D
   81. B  82. A  83. C  84. D  85. A  86. B  87. B  88. D  89. A  90. D
  91. D  92. A  93. B  94. D  95. C  96. C  97. A  98. B  99. D  100.C

Section 3 ¹²25Ì⣬ÿÌâ1·Ö£¬Âú·ÖΪ25·Ö
1. what    2. will    3. predicted    4. other    5. likely    6. they 
7. which   8. paying     9. for       10. enough      11. permanent
12. percent      13. after      14. transition / dropping     15. before
16. over    17. that    18. because     19. amount    20. introduction
21. Still    22. According     23. the     24. be    25. change